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路由器 - 2008-6-16 21:51:00

No-4-2 SECTION 1
1. Physicists rejected the innovative experimental technique because, although it----some problems, it also produced new----.
(A) clarified.. data
(B) eased.. interpretations
(C) resolved.. complications
(D) caused.. hypotheses
(E) revealed.. inconsistencies
2. During a period of protracted illness, the sick can become infirm, ----both the strength to work and many of the specific skills they once possessed.
(A) regaining (B) denying (C) pursuing
(D) insuring (E) losing
3. The pressure of population on available resources is the key to understanding history; consequently, any historical writing that takes no cognizance of----facts is----flawed.
(A) demographic.. intrinsically
(B) ecological.. marginally
(C) cultural.. substantively
(D) psychological.. philosophically
(E) political.. demonstratively
4. It is puzzling to observe that Jones's novel has recently been criticized for its----structure, since commentators have traditionally argued that its most obvious----is its relentlessly rigid, indeed schematic, framework.
(A) attention to.. preoccupation
(B) speculation about.. characteristic
(C) parody of.. disparity
(D) violation of.. contradiction
(E) lack of.. flaw
5. It comes as no surprise that societies have codes of behavior; the character of the codes, on the other hand, can often be----.
(A) predictable (B) unexpected
(C) admirable (D) explicit (E) confusing
6. The characterization of historical analysis as a form of fiction is not likely to be received---- by either historians or literary critics, who agree that history and fiction deal with----orders of experience.
(A) quietly.. significant
(B) enthusiastically.. shifting
(C) passively.. unusual
(D) sympathetically.. distinct
(E) contentiously.. realistic
7. For some time now, ----has been presumed not to exist: the cynical conviction that every- body has an angle is considered wisdom.
(A) rationality (B) flexibility
(C) diffidence (D) disinterestedness
(E) insincerity
8. STUDY: LEARN::
(A) pervade: encompass (B) search: find
(C) gather: win (D) agree: keep
(E) accumulate: raise
9. CORRAL: HORSES::
(A) den: lions (B) meadow: sheep
(C) herd: cattle (D) nest: birds
(E) coop: chickens
10. LULLABY: SONG::
(A) narrative: volume (B) lecture: tutor
(C) paragraph: page (D) diatribe: discourse
(E) invective: compliment
11. DIE: SHAPING::
(A) glue: attaching (B) anchor: sailing
(C) drill: boring (D) pedal: propelling
(E) ink: printing
12. MERCENARY: MONEY::
(A) vindictive: revenge (B) scholarly: library
(C) immaculate: cleanliness (D) thirsty: water
(E) belligerent: invasion
13. AUTHORITATIVENESS: PUNDITS::
(A) dedication: signatories
(B) sobriety: executors
(C) sensitivity: literati
(D) recklessness: warriors
(E) allegiance: partisans
14. STRUT: WING::
(A) lever: handle (B) axle: wheel
(C) buttress: wall (D) beam: rivet
(E) well: pipe
15. FAWN: IMPERIOUSNESS::
(A) equivocate: directness
(B) elaborate: originality
(C) boggle: imagination
(D) manipulate: repression
(E) coddle: permissiveness
16. TROUBLED: DISTRAUGHT::
(A) annoyed: disillusioned
(B) disturbed: interrupted
(C) covetous: rapacious
(D) outmoded: ostentatious
(E) tranquil: placid
The evolution of intelligence among early large mammals of the grasslands was due in great measure to the interaction between two ecologically synchronized groups of these ani- (5) mals, the hunting carnivores and the herbivores that they hunted. The interaction resulting from the differences between predator and prey led to a general improvement in brain functions; how- ever, certain components of intelligence were (10) improved far more than others.
The kind of intelligence favored by the inter- play of increasingly smarter catchers and increasingly keener escapers is defined by attention-that aspect of mind carrying con- (15) sciousness forward from one moment to the next. It ranges from a passive, free-floating awareness to a highly focused, active fixation. The range through these states is mediated by the arousal system, a network of tracts converg- (20) ing from sensory systems to integrating centers in the brain stem. From the more relaxed to the more vigorous levels, sensitivity to novelty is increased. The organism is more awake, more vigilant; this increased vigilance results in the (25) apprehension of ever more subtle signals as the organism becomes more sensitive to its sur- roundings. The processes of arousal and concen- tration give attention its direction. Arousal is at first general, with a flooding of impulses in the (30) brain stem; then gradually the activation is channeled. Thus begins concentration, the hold- ing of consistent images. One meaning of intelli- gence is the way in which these images and other alertly searched information are used in the con- (35) text of previous experience. Consciousness links past attention to the present and permits the integration of details with perceived ends and purposes.
The elements of intelligence and conscious- (40) ness come together marvelously to produce dif- ferent styles in predator and prey. Herbivores and carnivores develop different kinds of atten- tion related to escaping or chasing. Although in both kinds of animal, arousal stimulates the (45) production of adrenaline and norepinephrine by the adrenal glands, the effect in herbivores is pri- marily fear, whereas in carnivores the effect is primarily aggression. For both, arousal attunes the animal to what is ahead. Perhaps it does not (50) experience forethought as we know it, but the animal does experience something like it. The predator is searchingly aggressive, innerdirected, tuned by the nervous system and the adrenal hormones, but aware in a sense closer to human (55) consciousness than, say, a hungry lizard's instinc- tive snap at a passing beetle. Using past events as a framework, the large mammal predator is working out a relationship between movement and food, sensitive to possibilities in cold trails (60) and distant sounds-and yesterday's unforgotten lessons. The herbivore prey is of a different mind. Its mood of wariness rather than searching and its attitude of general expectancy instead of anticipating are silk-thin veils of tranquility over an explosive endocrine system.
17. The author is primarily concerned with
(A) disproving the view that herbivores are less intelligent than carnivores
(B) describing a relationship between animals' intelligence and their ecological roles
(C)establishing a direct link between early large mammals and their modern counterparts
(D) analyzing the ecological basis for the dominance of some carnivores over other carnivores
(E) demonstrating the importance of hormones in mental activity
18. The author refers to a hungry lizard (line 55) primarily in order to
(A) demonstrate the similarity between the hunting methods of mammals and those of nonmammals
(B) broaden the application of his argument by including an insectivore as an example
(C) make a distinction between higher and lower levels of consciousness
(D) provide an additional illustration of the brutality characteristic of predators
(E) offer an objection to suggestions that all animals lack consciousness
19. It can be inferred from the passage that in animals less intelligent than the mammals discussed in the passage
(A) past experience is less helpful in ensuring survival
(B) attention is more highly focused
(C) muscular coordination is less highly developed
(D) there is less need for competition among species
(E) environment is more important in estab- lishing the proper ratio of prey to predator
20. The sensitivity described in lines 56-61 is most clearly an example of
(A) "free-floating awareness" (lines 16-17)
(B) "flooding of impulses in the brain stem" (lines 29-30)
(C) "the holding of consistent images" (lines 31-32)
(D) "integration of details with perceived ends and purposes" (lines 37-38)
(E) "silk-thin veils of tranquility" (line 64)
21. The author's attitude toward the mammals dis- cussed in the passage is best described as
(A) superior and condescending
(B) lighthearted and jocular
(C) apologetic and conciliatory
(D) wistful and tender
(E) respectful and admiring
22. The author provides information that would answer which of the following questions?
I. Why is an aroused herbivore usually fearful?
II. What are some of the degrees of attention in large mammals?
III. What occurs when the stimulus that causes arousal of a mammal is removed?
(A) I only (B) III only (C) I and II only
(D) II and III only (E) I, II and III
23. According to the passage, improvement in brain function among early large mammals resulted primarily from which of the following?
(A) Interplay of predator and prey
(B) Persistence of free-floating awareness in animals of the grasslands
(C) Gradual dominance of warm-blooded mam- mals over cold-blooded reptiles
(D) Interaction of early large mammals with less intelligent species
(E) Improvement of the capacity for memory among herbivores and carnivores
24. According to the passage, as the process of arousal in an organism continues, all of the following may occur EXCEPT
(A) the production of adrenaline
(B) the production of norepinephrine
(C) a heightening of sensitivity to stimuli
(D) an increase in selectivity with respect to stimuli
(E) an expansion of the range of states mediated by the brain stem
Tocqueville, apparently, was wrong.Jacksonian America was not a fluid, egalitarian society where individual wealth and poverty were ephemeral condi- tions. At least to argues E. Pessen in his iconoclastic study of the very rich in the United States between 1825 and 1850.
Pessen does present a quantity of examples, together with some refreshingly intelligible statistics, to establish the existence of an inordinately wealthy class. Though active in commerce or the professions, most of the wealthy were not self-made, but had in- herited family fortunes. In no sense mercurial, these great fortunes survived the financial panics that de- stroyed lesser ones. Indeed, in several cities the wealthiest one percent constantly increased its share until by 1850 it owned half of the community's wealth. Although these observations are true, Pessen over- estimates their importance by concluding from them that the undoubted progress toward inequality in the late eighteenth century continued in the Jacksonian period and that the United States was a class-ridden, plutocratic society even before industrialization.
25. According to the passage, Pessen indicates that all of the following were true of the very wealthy in the United States between 1825 and 1850 EXCEPT:
(A) They formed a distinct upper class.
(B) Many of them were able to increase their holdings.
(C) Some of them worked as professionals or in business.
(D) Most of them accumulated their own fortunes.
(E) Many of them retained their wealth in spite of financial upheavals.
26. The author's attitude toward Pessen's presenta- tion of statistics can be best described as
(A) disapproving (B) shocked
(C) suspicious (D) amused (E) laudatory
27. Which of the following best states the author's main point?
(A) Pessen's study has overturned the pre- viously established view of the social and economic structure of early nineteenth- century America.
(B) Tocqueville's analysis of the United States in the Jacksonian era remains the definitive account of this period.
(C) Pessen's study is valuable primarily because it shows the continuity of the social system in the United States throughout the nineteenth century.
(D) The social patterns and political power of the extremely wealthy in the United States between 1825 and 1850 are well documented.
(E) Pessen challenges a view of the social and economic system in the United States from 1825 to 1850, but he draws con- clusions that are incorrect.
28. BOISTEROUS:
(A) grateful (B) angry (C) clever
(D) frightened (E) quiet
29. EMIT:
(A) absorb (B) demand (C) mistake
(D) prevent (E) require
30. METAMORRHOSE:
(A) move ahead (B) remain unaltered
(C) descend slowly (D) examine in haste
(E) prepare in advance
31. ALLY:
(A) mediator (B) felon (C) adversary
(D) inventor (E) conspirator
32. OFFHAND:
(A) accurate (B) universal (C) appropriate
(D) premeditated (E) disputatious
33. BROACH:
(A) keep track of (B) lay claim to
(C) close off (D) soothe (E) simplify
34. GIST:
(A) artificial manner (B) trivial point
(C) informal procedure (D) eccentric method
(E) singular event
35. DIVESTITURE:
(A) acquisition (B) promotion
(C) subsidization (D) consultation
(E) monopolization
36. EXTANT:
(A) extensive (B) extraneous
(C) extricable (D) extinct (E) extra
37. TRACTABILITY:
(A) infertility (B) implausibility
(C) incorrigibility (D) impenetrability
(E) indefatigability
38. NOISOME:
(A) attractively fragrant (B) subtly flattering
(C) consistently patient (D) softly glowing
(E) gradually diminishing
NO 4-2 SECTION 2
Questions 1-7
A main-order company sells packages of jam, each containing three jars of jam. The available flavors are: grape, orange, strawberry, peach, and quince.
Each jar contains exactly one flavor of jam. Each package must conform to the following rules:
Each package must contain either two or three different flavors of jam.
A package containing any orange jam must also contain at least one jar of grape.
A package containing any grape jam must also contain at least one jar of orange.
Peach jam and quince jam cannot be packed in the same package.
A package containing any strawberry jam must also contain at least one jar of quince, but a package containing quince jam need not contain strawberry jam.
1. Which of the following is an acceptable package?
(A) One jar of peach, one jar of strawberry, and one jar of orange
(B) One jar of orange, one jar of strawberry, and one jar of grape
(C) Two jars of strawberry and one jar of quince
(D) Three jars of peach
(E) Three jars of orange
2. An acceptable package CANNOT contain which of the following combinations of jams?
(A) Grape and peach (B) Peach and quince
(C) Orange and peach (D) Orange and grape
(E) Strawberry and quince
3. Which of the following could be packed with a jar of strawberry to make an acceptable package?
(A) One jar of peach and one jar of orange
(B) One jar of grape and one jar of orange
(C) Two jars of quince (D) Two jars of orange
(E) Two jars of grape
4. A jar of which of the following must be packed with a jar of orange and a jar of peach to make an acceptable package?
(A) Grape (B) Orange (C) Strawberry
(D) Peach (E) Quince
5. Which of the following pairs of jars of jam could be packed with a jar of orange to make an acceptable package?
(A) One jar each of orange and strawberry
(B) One jar each of grape and strawberry
(C) Two jars of orange (D) Two jars of grape
(E) Two jars of strawberry
6. Which of the following CANNOT be two of the three jars of jam in an acceptable package?
(A) One jar of strawberry and one jar of peach
(B) One jar of grape and one jar of orange
(C) Two jars of orange (D) Two jars of grape
(E) Two jars of strawberry
7. An acceptable package CANNOT contain two jars of
(A) orange (B) grape (C) quince
(D) strawberry (E) peach
8. A person who agrees to serve as mediator between two warring factions at the request of both abandons by so agreeing the right later to take sides. To take sides at a later point would be to suggest that the earlier presumptive impartiality was a sham.
The passage above emphasizes which of the following points about mediators?
(A) They should try to form no opinions of their own about any issue that is related to the dispute.
(B) They should not agree to serve unless they are committed to maintaining a stance of impartiality.
(C) They should not agree to serve unless they are equally acceptable to all parties to a dispute.
(D) They should feel free to take sides in the dispute right from the start, provided that they make their biases publicly known.
(E) They should reserve the right to abandon their impartiality so as not to be open to the charge of having been deceitful.
9. A study of attitudes toward prime-time televi- sion programs showed that programs with identical ratings in terms of number of people watching received highly divergent marks for quality from their viewers. This additional piece of information could prove valuable for adver- tisers, who might be well advised to spend their advertising dollars for programs that viewers feel are of high quality.
Which of the following, if true, supports the claim that information about viewers' percep- tions of the quality of television programs could be valuable to advertisers?
(A) The number of programs judged to be of high quality constituted a high per- centage of the total number of programs judged.
(B) Many of the programs judged to be of high quality were shown on noncommercial networks.
(C) Television viewers more frequently remember the sponsors of programs they admire than the sponsors of programs they judge mediocre.
(D) Television viewers tend to watch new programs only when those programs follow old, familiar programs.
(E) Television viewers report that the quality of a television advertisement has little effect on their buying habits.
10. Nineteenth-century art critics judged art by the realism of its method of representation. It was assumed that the realistic method developed from primitive beginnings to the perfection of formal realism. It is one of the permanent gains of the aesthetic revolution of the twentieth century that we are rid of this type of aesthetics.
It can be inferred from the passage above that the artistic revolution of the twentieth century had which of the following effects?
(A) It deemphasized realistic representation as an evaluative consideration for judging works of art.
(B) It permitted modern critics to appreciate the simplicity of primitive art.
(C) It repudiated the realistic representation found in the art of the past.
(D) It reinforced traditional ways of looking at and judging great art.
(E) It allowed art critics to understand the evolution and nature of art.
Questions 11-16
Three women-R, S, and T, two men-U and V, and four children-W, X, Y, and Z-are going to a game. They have a total of nine seats for the game, but the seats are in three different sections of the arena; they have a group of three adjacent seats in each section. For the game, the nine people must divide into groups of three according to the following restrictions:
No adults of the same sex can be together in any group.
W cannot be in R's group.
X must be in a group with S or U or both.
11. If R is the only adult in one group, the other members of her group must be
(A) W and X (B) W and Y (C) X and Y
(D) X and Z (E) Y and Z
12. If R and U are two of the three people in the first group, who can be in the second and third groups, respectively?
(A) S, T, W; V, Y, Z (B) S, W, Z; T, V, X
(C) S, X, Y; T, W, Z (D) T, V, W; S, Y, Z
(E) W, X, Y; S, V, Z
13. Which of the following pairs of people can be in the same group as W?
(A) R and Y (B) S and U (C) S and V
(D) U and V (E) X and Z
14. Which of the following must be true?
(A) One of the women is in a group with two children.
(B) One of the two men is in a group with W.
(C) R is in a group with a man.
(D) T's group includes exactly one child.
(E) One of the groups includes no children.
15. Any of the following pairs of people could be in X's group EXCEPT
(A) R and U (B) S and T (C) S and U
(D) S and W (E) T and U
16. If T, Y, and Z are in one group, which of the following must be together in one of the other groups?
(A) R, S, V (B) R, U, W (C) S, U, W
(D) S, V, W (E) U, V, X
Questions 17-22
The manager of a repertory theater company is planning a schedule of productions for the company's five-week summer festival. Two different plays will be scheduled for each of the five weeks. The ten plays that will be scheduled are four plays by playwright R, two plays by playwright S, two plays by play- wright T, one play by playwright U, and one play by playwright V. The scheduling is subject to the following restrictions:
No two plays by the same playwright will be scheduled for any of the five weeks, except for week 3, for which two plays by playwright R will be scheduled.
The play by playwright V will be scheduled for week 5.
No play by playwright S will be scheduled for the same week as any play by playwright R.
17. Which of the following could be the two plays scheduled for week 1?
(A) Two plays by playwright R
(B) Two plays by playwright S
(C) A play by playwright R and a play by playwright S
(D) A play by playwright R and the play by playwright U
(E) The play by playwright U and the play by playwright V
18. If the plays by playwright R will be scheduled for weeks 2, 3, and 4, which of the following must be true?
(A) A play by playwright S will be scheduled for week 2.
(B) A play by playwright S will be scheduled for week 5.
(C) A play by playwright T will be scheduled for week 2.
(D) A play by playwright T will be scheduled for week 4.
(E) The play by playwright U will be scheduled for week 1.
19. If the plays by playwright S will be scheduled for weeks 1 and 2, which of the following must be true?
(A) A play by playwright R will be scheduled for week 4.
(B) A play by playwright T will be scheduled for week 1.
(C) A play by playwright T will be scheduled for week 4.
(D) A play by playwright T will be scheduled for week 5.
(E) The play by playwright U will be scheduled for week 4.
20. Which of the following pairs of plays CANNOT be scheduled together for any week?
(A) A play by playwright R and a play by playwright T.
(B) A play by playwright R and the play by playwright U.
(C) A play by playwright S and a play by playwright T.
(D) A play by playwright S and the play by playwright U.
(E) A play by playwright T and the play by playwright U.
21. If a play by playwright S and the play by play- wright U will both be scheduled for the same week, which of the following must be true?
(A) A play by playwright R and a play by playwright T will both be scheduled for the same week.
(B) A play by playwright S and a play by playwright T will both be scheduled for the same week.
(C) The play by playwright U will be scheduled for week 2.
(D) A play by playwright S will be scheduled for week 4.
(E) A play by playwright T will be scheduled for week 5.
22. If the plays by playwright T will be scheduled for consecutive weeks, which of the following must be true?
(A) The plays by playwright S will be scheduled for weeks 1 and 2.
(B) The plays by playwright S will be scheduled for weeks 2 and 5.
(C) The plays by playwright S will be scheduled for weeks 4 and 5.
(D) The plays by playwright T will be scheduled for weeks 1 and 2.
(E) The plays by playwright T will be scheduled for weeks 4 and 5.
Questions 23-24
Why save endangered species? For the general public, endangered species appear to be little more than biological oddities. A very different perception is gained from considering the issue of extinction in a wider context. The important point is that many major social advances have been made on the basis of life forms whose worth would never have been perceived in advance. Consider the impact of rubber- producing plants on contemporary life and industry: approximately two-thirds of the world's rubber supply comes from rubber-producing plants and is made into objects as diverse as rubber washers and rubber boots.
23. The author's point is made chiefly by
(A) acknowledging the validity of two opposing points of view
(B) appealing to the emotions of the audience rather than to their intellects
(C) suggesting a useful perspective for viewing the question raised at the beginning of the passage
(D) trying to discredit the view of an opponent without presenting an alternative hypothesis
(E) generalizing from similar to dissimilar cases
24. All of the following facts could be used as illustrative examples in addition to the example of rubber-producing plants EXCEPT:
(A) The discovery of the vaccine for smallpox resulted from observing the effect of the cowpox virus on the hands of dairy workers.
(B) The major source of our pharmaceutical supplies is plants, some of them commonly thought of as weeds.
(C) Certain antibiotics were originally derived from mold growing on cantaloupe.
(D) Plastic is a unique product derived from petroleum and petroleum by-products.
(E) Hamsters and other rodents have played an important role in laboratory tests of medicine for use on humans.
25. In the United States between 1850 and 1880, the number of farmers continued to increase, but at a rate lower than that of the general population.
Which of the following statements directly con- tradicts the information presented above?
(A) The number of farmers in the general population increased slightly in the thirty years between 1850 and 1880.
(B) The rate of growth of the United States labor force and the rate of growth of the general population rose simultaneously in the thirty years between 1850 and 1880.
(C) The proportion of farmers in the United States labor force remained constant in the thirty years between 1850 and 1880.
(D) The proportion of farmers in the United States labor force decreased from 64 per- cent in 1850 to 49 percent in 1880.
(E) The proportion of farmers in the general population increased from 68 percent in 1850 to 72 percent in 1880.
N0 4-2 SECTION 4
1. The ----of mass literacy coincided with the first industrial revolution; in turn, the new expansion in literacy, as well as cheaper printing, helped to nurture the----of popular literature.
(A) building.. mistrust
(B) reappearance.. display
(C) receipt.. source (D) selection.. influence
(E) emergence.. rise
2. Although ancient tools were----preserved, enough have survived to allow us to demonstrate an occasionally interrupted but generally---- progress through prehistory.
(A) partially.. noticeable
(B) superficially.. necessary
(C) unwittingly.. documented
(D) rarely.. continual
(E) needlessly.. incessant
3. In parts of the Arctic, the land grades into the landfast ice so----that you can walk off the coast and not know you are over the hidden sea.
(A) permanently (B) imperceptibly
(C) irregularly (D) precariously (E) slightly
4. Kagan maintains that an infant's reactions to its first stressful experiences are part of a natural process of development, not harbingers of childhood unhappiness or ----signs of adolescent anxiety.
(A) prophetic (B) normal
(C) monotonous (D) virtual (E) typical
5. An investigation that is----can occasionally yield new facts, even notable ones, but typically the appearance of such facts is the result of a search in a definite direction.
(A) timely (B) unguided (C) consistent
(D) uncomplicated (E) subjective
6. Like many eighteenth-century scholars who lived by cultivating those in power, Winckelmann neglected to neutralize, by some----gesture of comradeship, the resentment his peers were bound to feel because of his----the high and mighty.
(A) quixotic.. intrigue with
(B) enigmatic.. familiarity with
(C) propitiatory.. involvement with
(D) salutary.. questioning of
(E) unfeigned.. sympathy for
7. In a----society that worships efficiency, it is difficult for a sensitive and idealistic person to make the kinds of----decisions that alone spell success as it is defined by such a society.
(A) bureaucratic.. edifying
(B) pragmatic.. hardheaded
(C) rational.. well-intentioned
(D) competitive.. evenhanded
(E) modern.. dysfunctional
8. TABLECTOTH: TABLE::
(A) tent: ground (B) shirt: hanger
(C) window: sill (D) sheet: mattress
(E) cloud: earth
9. CANVAS: PAINTER::
(A) leather: shoe (B) brush: palette
(C) chisel: wood (D) marble: sculptor
(E) hammer: carpenter
10. MANSION: RESIDENCE::
(A) limousine: automobile
(B) chandelier: candle
(C) tuxedo: wardrobe
(D) diamond: rhinestone
(E) yacht: harbor
11. DOOR: ROOM::
(A) rudder: anchor (B) boat: ship
(C) patio: terrace (D) hatch: hold
(E) basement: attic
12. CHOREOGRAPHY: DANCE::
(A) ceremony: sermon
(B) agenda: advertisement
(C) poetry: recitation
(D) instrumentation:: conductor
(E) plot: story
13. EVAPORATE: VAPOR::
(A) petrify: stone (B) centrifuge: liquid
(C) saturate: fluid (D) corrode: acid
(E) incinerate: fire
14. ASSUAGE: SORROW::
(A) retaliate: antipathy (B) dampen: ardor
(C) entrust: reliability (D) counsel: reluctance
(E) withhold: appreciation

15. NUMB: INSENSIBLE::
(A) reflect: luminous (B) burnish: lustrous
(C) heckle: raucous (D) repulse: odious
(E) braid: sinuous
16. AUDACIOUS: TREPDATION::
(A) refractory: intransigence
(B) laconic: volubility
(C) sordid: aspiration
(D) cursory: accumulation
(E) derisive: subordination
"I want to criticize the social system, and to show it at work, at its most intense." Virginia Woolf's provocative statement about her inten- tions in writing Mrs. Dalloway has regularly (5) been ignored by the critics, since it highlights an aspect of her literary interests very different from the traditional picture of the "poetic" novelist concerned with examining states of reverie and vision and with following the intricate pathways (10) of individual consciousness. But Virginia Woolf was a realistic as well as a poetic novelist, a satirist and social critic as well as a visionary: literary critics' cavalier dismissal of Woolf's social vision will not withstand scrutiny. (15) In her novels, Woolf is deeply engaged by the questions of how individuals are shaped (or de- formed) by their social environments, how historical forces impinge on people's lives, how class, wealth, and gender help to determine (20) people's fates. Most of her novels are rooted in a realistically rendered social setting and in a precise historical time.
Woolf's focus on society has not been gener- ally recognized because of her intense antipathy (25) to propaganda in art. The pictures of reformers in her novels are usually satiric or sharply critical. Even when Woolf is fundamentally sympathetic to their causes, she portrays people anxious to reform their society and possessed of (30) a message or program as arrogant or dishonest, unaware of how their political ideas serve their own psychological needs. (Her Writer's Diary notes: "the only honest people are the artists," whereas "these social reformers and philan- (35) thropists…harbor…discreditable desires under the disguise of loving their kind….") Woolf detested what she called "preaching" in fiction, too, and criticized novelist D. H. Lawrence (among others) for working by (40) this method.
Woolf's own social criticism is expressed in the language of observation rather than in direct commentary, since for her, fiction is a contem- plative, not an active art. She describes phenom- (45) ena and provides materials for a judgment about society and social issues; it is the reader's work to put the observations together and understand the coherent point of view behind them. As a moralist, Woolf works by indirection, subtly (50) undermining officially accepted mores, mocking, suggesting, calling into question, rather than asserting, advocating, bearing witness: hers is the satirist's art.
Woolf's literary models were acute social ob- (55) servers like Checkhov and Chaucer. As she put it in The Common Reader. "It is safe to say that not a single law has been framed or one stone set upon another because of anything Chaucer said or wrote; and yet, as we read him, we are absorb- (60) ing morality at every pore." Like Chaucer, Woolf chose to understand as well as to judge, to know her society root and branch-a decision curcial in order to produce art rather than polemic.
17. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?
(A) Poetry and Satire as Influences on the Novels of Virginia Woolf
(B) Virginia Woolf: Critic and Commentator on the Twentieth-Century Novel
(C) Trends in Contemporary Reform Move- ments as a Key to Understanding Virginia Woolf's Novels
(D) Society as Allegory for the Individual in the Novels of Virginia Woolf
(E) Virginia Woolf's Novels: Critical Reflec- tions on the Individual and on Society
18. In the first paragraph of the passage, the author's attitude toward the literary critics mentioned can best be described as
(A) disparaging (B) ironic (C) facetious
(D) skeptical but resigned
(E) disappointed but hopeful
19. It can be inferred from the passage that Woolf chose Chaucer as a literary model because she believed that
(A) Chaucer was the first English author to focus on society as a whole as well as on individual characters
(B) Chaucer was an honest and forthright author, whereas novelists like D, H, Lawrence did not sincerely wish to change society
(C) Chaucer was more concerned with under- standing his society than with calling its accepted mores into question
(D) Chaucer's writing was greatly, if subtly, effective in influencing the moral attitudes of his readers
(E) her own novels would be more widely read if, like Chaucer, she did not overtly and vehemently criticize contemporary society
20. It can be inferred from the passage that the most probable reason Woolf realistically described the social setting in the majority of her novels was that she
(A) was aware that contemporary literary critics considered the novel to be the most realistic of literary genres
(B) was interested in the effect of a person's social milieu on his or her character and actions
(C) needed to be as attentive to detail as possible in her novels in order to support the arguments she advanced in them
(D) wanted to show that a painstaking fidelity in the representation of reality did not in any way hamper the artist
(E) wished to prevent critics from charging that her novels were written in an ambiguous and inexact style
21. Which of the following phrases best expresses the sense of the word "contemplative" as it is used in lines 43-44 of the passage?
(A) Gradually elucidating the rational structures underlying accepted mores
(B) Reflecting on issues in society without prejudice or emotional commitment
(C) Avoiding the aggressive assertion of the author's perspective to the exclusion of the reader's judgment
(D) Conveying a broad view of society as a whole rather than focusing on an isolated individual consciousness
(E) Appreciating the world as the artist sees it rather than judging it in moral terms
22. The author implies that a major element of the satirist's art is the satirist's
(A) consistent adherence to a position of lofty disdain when viewing the foibles of humanity
(B) insistence on the helplessness of individuals against the social forces that seek to determine an individual's fate
(C) cynical disbelief that visionaries can either enlighten or improve their societies
(D) fundamental assumption that some ambiguity must remain in a work of art in order for it to reflect society and social mores accurately
(E) refusal to indulge in polemic when presenting social mores to readers for their scrutiny
23. The passage supplies information for answering which of the following questions?
(A) Have literary critics ignored the social criticism inherent in the works of Chekhov and Chaucer?
(B) Does the author believe that Woolf is solely an introspective and visionary novelist?
(C) What are the social causes with which Woolf shows herself to be sympathetic in her writings?
(D) Was D. H. Lawrence as concerned as Woolf was with creating realistic settings for his novels?
(E) Does Woolf attribute more power to social environment or to historical forces as shapers of a person's life?
It is a popular misconception that nuclear fusion power is free of radioactivity; in fact, the deuterium- tritium reaction that nuclear scientists are currently exploring with such zeal produces both alpha particles and neutrons, (The neutrons are used to produce tri- tium from a lithium blanket surrounding the reactor.) Another common misconception is that nuclear fusion power is a virtually unlimited source of energy because of the enormous quantity of deuterium in the sea. Ac- tually, its limits are set by the amount of available lithium, which is about as plentiful as uranium in the Earth's crust. Research should certainly continue on controlled nuclear fusion, but no energy program should be premised on its existence until it has proven practical. For the immediate future, we must continue to use hydroelectric power, nuclear fission, and fossil fuels to meet our energy needs. The energy sources already in major use are in major use for good reason.
24. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) criticize scientists who believe that the deuterium-tritium fusion reaction can be made feasible as an energy source
(B) admonish scientists who have failed to correctly calculate the amount of lithium available for use in nuclear fusion reactors
(C) defend the continued short-term use of fossil fuels as a major energy source
(D) caution against uncritical embrace of nuclear fusion power as a major energy source
(E) correct the misconception that nuclear fusion power is entirely free of radioactivity
25. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes which of the following about the current state of public awareness concerning nuclear fusion power?
(A) The public has been deliberately misin- formed about the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear fusion power.
(B) The public is unaware of the principal advantage of nuclear fusion over nuclear fission as an energy source.
(C) The public's awareness of the scientific facts concerning nuclear fusion power is somewhat distorted and incomplete.
(D) The public is not interested in increasing its awareness of the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear fusion power.
(E) The public is aware of the disadvantages of nuclear fusion power but not of its advantages.
26. The passage provides information that would answer which of the following questions?
(A) What is likely to be the principal source of deuterium for nuclear fusion power?
(B) How much incidental radiation is produced in the deuterium tritium fusion reaction?
(C) Why are scientists exploring the deuterium- tritium fusion reaction with such zeal?
(D) Why must the tritium for nuclear fusion be synthesized from lithium?
(E) Why does the deuterium-tritium reaction yield both alpha particles and neutrons?
27. Which of the following statements concerning nuclear scientists is most directly suggested in the passage?
(A) Nuclear scientists are not themselves aware of all of the facts surrounding the deuterium-tritium fusion reaction.
(B) Nuclear scientists exploring the deuterium- tritium reaction have overlooked key facts in their eagerness to prove nuclear fusion practical.
(C) Nuclear scientists may have overestimated the amount of lithium actually available in the Earth's crust.
(D) Nuclear scientists have not been entirely dis- passionate in their investigation of the deuterium-tritium reaction.
(E) Nuclear scientists have insufficiently investi- gated the lithium-to-tritium reaction in nuclear fusion.
28. PERSEVERE:
(A) put into (B) send out (C) take away
(D) give up (E) bring forward
29. WATERPROOF:
(A) soggy (B) natural (C) unglazed
(D) viscous (E) permeable
30. AMALGAMATE:
(A) separate (B) fixate (C) terminate
(D) calibrate (E) correlate
31. PUNGENCY:
(A) boredom (B) redundancy
(C) unresponsiveness (D) blandness
(E) insignificance
32. ANARCHY:
(A) courtesy (B) hope (C) order
(D) neutrality (E) importance
33. INCURSION:
(A) loss of respect (B) lack of resolve
(C) reparation (D) relapse (E) retreat
34. ABROGATE:
(A) uphold (B) defer (C) discuss secretly
(D) admit willingly (E) read thoroughly
35. HAPLESS:
(A) excited (B) elated (C) fortunate
(D) completely self-reliant
(E) assured of success
36. AVER:
(A) collect (B) augment (C) placate
(D) deny (E) encourage
37. SEDULOUS:
(A) presumptuous (B) ponderous
(C) treacherous (D) careless (E) useless
38. INSULARITY:
(A) overzealousness (B) cosmopolitanism
(C) susceptibility (D) willing hospitality
(E) knowledgeable consideration
NO. 4-2 SECTION 5
Questions 1-6
The consumer complaint department of a firm employs exactly six people who answer letters: G, H, I, J, K, and L. Every complaint letter received by the department is classified as either red or blue. The following procedures for answering the letters are used:
Red letters are given first to G or H. Blue letters are given first to any one of the following G, J, or I.
If a letter raises a problem that cannot be resolved by the person to whom it is given, it must be forwarded until it reaches someone who can resolve the problem and answer the letter. A letter must be forwarded as follows:
By G to I if the letter is red, but to J if the letter is blue;
By H to either G or I;
By I to J if the letter is red, but to K if the letter is blue;
By J to either I or K whether the letter is red or blue;
By K to L whether the letter is red or blue; L answers every letter given to him.
1. Any of the following can be true EXCEPT:
(A) G forwards a red letter to I.
(B) H forwards a red letter to G.
(C) H forwards a red letter to I.
(D) I forwards a red letter to K.
(E) J forwards a red letter to I.
2. A blue letter could reach L via which of the following sequences of people?
(A) G to H to K (B) G to I to J
(C) G to J to K (D) I to H to J
(E) I to G to J to K
3. Any letter that reaches L must have been previously given to
(A) G (B) H (C) I (D) J (E) K
4. Which of the following could be given to each of the six members of the consumer complaint department in turn?
(A) A red letter that is first given to H
(B) A red letter that is first given to G
(C) A blue letter that is first given to G
(D) A blue letter that is first given to I
(E) A blue letter that is first given to J
5. Any letter that reaches L must have been given to a minimum of how many members of the consumer complaint department before reaching L?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5
6. If a member of the consumer complaint department is given a letter that he or she had previously given to some other member of the department, the person who is given the letter a second time could be
(A) G (B) H (C) J (D) K (E) L
7. Veteran screenwriters, aiming at creating a 120-page screenplay for a film, usually turn in a 135-page first draft. As one screenwriter put it, "That gives those in charge of the movie a chance to be creative when they get the script: at the very least, they can cut 15 pages."
The screenwriter's statement cited above conveys which of the following propositions?
(A) Screenwriters for a film are generally not involved in any aspects of filmmaking besides providing the script.
(B) Seasoned screenwriters are resigned to, and make allowance for, draft scripts being altered by those evaluating them.
(C) Truly creative screenwriters are too temperamental to adhere to page limits set for their work.
(D) It takes a special kind of creativity to recognize what is best left out of a film script.
(E) Even experienced screenwriters cannot be expected to write scripts of consistently high quality throughout.
8. During the day in Lake Constance, the zoo- plankton D. hyalina departs for the depths where food is scarce and the water cold. D. galeata remains near the warm surface where food is abundant. Even though D. galeata grows and reproduces much faster, its population is often outnumbered by D. hyalina.
Which of the following, if true, would help resolve the apparent paradox presented above?
(A) The number of species of zooplankton living at the bottom of the lake is twice that of species living at the surface.
(B) Predators of zooplankton, such as white- fish and perch, live and feed near the surface of the lake during the day.
(C) In order to make the most of scarce food resources, D. hyalina matures more slowly than D. galeata.
(D) D. galeata clusters under vegetation during the hottest part of the day to avoid the sun's rays.
(E) D. galeata produces twice as many off- spring per individual in any given period of time as does D. hyalina.
9. Each year, fires in the United States cause $12 billion in property losses, insurance costs, fire- fighting expenses, and loss of worker produc- tivity. These fire losses are seven times those of Japan on a per capita basis.
Which of the following, if true, would be LEAST likely to be a factor contributing to the difference between fire losses in Japan and those in the United States?
(A) The walls of Japanese homes are made mostly of wood and bamboo and are more combustible than the walls in most American homes.
(B) The rate of arson, a major contributor to fire statistics in the United States, is almost negligible in Japan.
(C) Most Japanese homes, unlike those in the United States, are equipped with specially designed and effective fire- extinguishing equipment.
(D) Foam-based and plastic furniture, less popular in Japan than in the United States, ignites readily and releases twice the heat energy of equivalent weights of natural fibers.
(E) Japanese fire departments devote pro- portionately more personnel time to inspection, training, and public education than do United States fire departments.
Questions 10-13
At a cooking school, the following six classes-F, G, H, J, K, and I----are to be scheduled to meet for one demonstration each during an all-day seminar. Each demonstration is 45 minutes long, and the only possible starting times for the class meetings are 9 a. m., 10 a. m., 11 a.m., 2 p. m., and 4 p. m. The schedule of class meetings is to be established in accordance with the following conditions:
F cannot meet at the same time that G meets.
H must meet earlier in the day than F.
J must meet in the afternoon.
None of the other classes can meet at the time that K meets.
L can meet in the morning or in the afternoon.
10. Any of the following could meet at 4 p. m. EXCEPT
(A) F (B) G (C) H (D) J (E) K
11. If J meets some time before K meets, which of the following could be true?
(A) F meets some time after J meets.
(B) G meets at 4 p. m.
(C) K meets at 2 p. m.
(D) L meets at 2 p. m.
(E) L meets some time after K meets.
12. If F meets at 10 a. m. and none of the classes meets at 4 p. m., which of the following must be true?
(A) H meets some time before L meets.
(B) H meets some time before K meets.
(C) K meets some time before G meets.
(D) L meets at the same time that G meets.
(E) L meets at the same time that J meets.
13. If H meets at 2 p. m., which of the following must be true?
(A) F meets later in the day than I..
(B) G meets at 2 p. m.
(C) G meets in the morning.
(D) J meets at 2 p. m.
(E) K meets in the morning.
Questions 14-18
Exactly seven persons-P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V- participate in and finish all of a series of swimming races. There are no ties for any position at the finish of any of the races.
V always finishes somewhere ahead of P.
P always finishes somewhere ahead of Q.
Either R finishes first and T finishes last, or S finishes first and U or Q finishes last.
14. If in a race V finishes fifth, which of the following must be true?
(A) S finishes first. (B) R finishes second.
(C) T finishes third. (D) Q finishes fourth.
(E) U finishes last.
15. If in a race R finishes first, V can finish no lower than
(A) second (B) third (C) fourth
(D) fifth (E) sixth
16. If in a race S finishes second, which of the following can be true?
(A) P finishes before R.
(B) V finishes before S.
(C) P finishes before V.
(D) T finishes before Q.
(E) U finishes before V.
17. If in a race S finishes sixth and Q finishes fifth, which of the following can be true?
(A) V finishes first of fourth.
(B) R finishes second or third.
(C) P finishes second or fifth.
(D) U finishes third or fourth.
(E) T finishes fourth of fifth.
18. If in a race R finishes second and Q finishes fifth, which of the following must be true?
(A) S finishes third. (B) P finishes third.
(C) V finishes fourth. (D) T finishes sixth.
(E) U finishes sixth.
Questions 19-22
The membership of two committees, designated X and Y, must be drawn exclusively from a group of seven people: Frederick, Georgia, Helen, Irene, Jorge, Karin, and Lamont.
Each of the seven people must serve on X or Y.
No one can serve on both X and Y.
Frederick cannot serve on a committee with Georgia or with Jorge.
Helen cannot serve on a committee with Irene.
19. If Helen serves on X, which of the following must be true?
(A) Frederick serves on X.
(B) Georgia serves on Y.
(C) Irene serves on Y.
(D) Karin serves on X.
(E) Lamont serves on Y.
20. If exactly two people serve on X, which of the following can be one of the two?
(A) Georgia
(B) Helen
(C) Jorge
(D) Karin
(E) Lamont
21. If Lamont does not serve with Karin or Irene, which of the following CANNOT be true?
(A) Frederick serves with Irene.
(B) Georgia serves with Helen.
(C) Helen serves with Karin.
(D) Irene serves with Karin.
(E) Jorge serves with Lamont.
22. There would be only one possible distribution of people on the committees if which of the following restrictions were added to the original set of conditions?
(A) Frederick and Lamont must serve on X, and Helen must serve on Y.
(B) Jorge must serve on X, and Karin and Lamont must serve on Y.
(C) Georgia and Lamont must serve on X.
(D) Helen and four other people must serve on X.
(E) Irene and three other people must serve on Y.
23. Many researchers believe that the presence of RNA in brain cells is the biochemical basis of memory; that is, the presence of RNA enables us to remember. Because certain chemicals are known to inhibit the synthesis of RNA in the body, we can test this hyp

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